the polynomial f(x)=a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3 has at least one root in the interval (0,1).
Consider the polynomial g(x)=a0x+a12x2+a23x3+a34x4
Clearly g(0)=0 and g(1)=a0+a12+a23+a34=0 { given in the problem }
Since g(x) is a polynomial it is continuous in [0,1] and differentiable in (0,1)
Thus by Rolle's Theorem, g′(x)=0 for at least one x∈(0,1) ⇒a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3=0 for at least one x∈(0,1)
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