Application of Rolle's Theorem

Let \(a_0,a_1,a_2\) and \(a_3 \) be real numbers such that \(a_0+\frac{a_1}{2}+\frac{a_2}{3}+\frac{a_3}{4}=0\). Then show that $$$$ the polynomial \(f(x)=a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3\) has at least one root in the interval \( ( 0 , 1 ) \). $$$$ Consider the polynomial \( g(x) = a_0x+\frac{a_1}{2}x^2+\frac{a_2}{3}x^3+\frac{a_3}{4}x^4 \) $$$$ Clearly $g(0)=0$ and \( g(1) = a_0+\frac{a_1}{2}+\frac{a_2}{3}+\frac{a_3}{4} = 0\) { given in the problem } $$$$ Since $g(x)$ is a polynomial it is continuous in [0,1] and differentiable in (0,1) $$$$ Thus by Rolle's Theorem, \(g'(x) = 0 \) for at least one \( x \in (0,1) \) \( \Rightarrow a_0+a_1x+a_2x^2+a_3x^3 = 0\) for at least one \( x \in (0,1) \) $$$$