If possible let, P(P(x))=x has a real solution for x=x0. Then P(P(x0))=x0…(1)
Now let, P(x0)=y0 ⟹P(y0)=x0 using (1)
Note that x0≠y0, otherwise we will have a solution to the equation P(x)=x! A contradiction to the hypothesis. Without loss of generality assume that x0<y0
Construct a function Q:[x0,y0]→R where Q(x)=P(x)−x,since P is given to be continuous on R, Q is continuous on [x0,y0].
Observe that, Q(x0)=P(x0)−x0=y0−x0>0 and Q(y0)=P(y0)−y0=x0−y0<0
⟹Q(x0)Q(y0)<0⟹ there exists a point c∈ [x0,y0] such that Q(c)=0 using Intermediate−Value−Theorem
⟹P(c)−c=0⟹P(c)=c for a real value, which contradicts the hypothesis, thus the assumption P(P(x))=x has a real solution is not tenable.
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